Thursday, February 12, 2009

Cleansed from All Sin

First John 1:8 is the verse most commonly used (actually, misused) in attempts to undermine or deny biblical holiness. It has become a trump card, of sorts. Teachers quote a single verse and believe there is nothing more to be said. They believe it wipes out dozens and dozens of passages that teach the practical reality of sinless Christianity.

Of course, the verse is always quoted out of context, and the abusers twist the verse to say exactly the opposite of what the passage teaches.

Here is the verse by itself: “If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.” And sometimes verse 10 is also used. “If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.”

Here is the context:

What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life-- and the life was manifested, and we have seen and testify and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us-- what we have seen and heard we proclaim to you also, so that you too may have fellowship with us; and indeed our fellowship is with the Father, and with His Son Jesus Christ. These things we write, so that our joy may be made complete. (1 John 1:1-4)

This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you, that God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all. If we say that we have fellowship with Him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth; but if we walk in the Light as He Himself is in the Light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin. If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us. (1 John 1:5-10)

The first four verses state the reason for John’s letter, to proclaim what he has seen so that his readers can have the fellowship of eternal life. He wants to proclaim the gospel message. Then, verses 5 through 10 contain that message: “This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you …” and the rest follows to the end of the chapter.

So, verses 5 through 10 contain a message that conveys what is necessary to gain fellowship and eternal life.

The first point is that God is light and there is no darkness in Him. That is the bedrock of the message.

The second point follows logically. If we say that we have fellowship with God and walk in the darkness, obviously we are lying. Why? Because there is no darkness in Him. This helps us see that “we” in this context cannot mean only Christians, as some assert. Since fellowship with God is equated with having eternal life, the person who walks in darkness must not be a true Christian, so "we" cannot be "we Christians." The intent must be a larger “we,” such as “we people.” This understanding of “we” fits every verse in this passage.

The third point also follows and adds a cleansing act. If we walk in the Light, we have fellowship with God and the blood of Christ cleanses us from all sin.

Many teachers jerk the next verse out of its context and destroy the meaning of the entire passage. Remember, this is a gospel message designed to bring eternal life. John has established that if a person walks in the light, he will be cleansed of his sin and granted eternal life. So, this passage is designed to show an unbeliever the way of salvation. An unbeliever must admit that he has sin in order to be cleansed. So if he says he has no sin, he is deceiving himself, and the truth is not in him.

This isn’t about a Christian claiming not to have sin. It’s about someone making this claim who still needs to be cleansed. If this wasn’t the case, then verse 7 makes no sense at all. It says that the blood cleanses from all sin. It’s gone. What sin would be remaining? None. Did Jesus do a poor job in cleansing from all sin? Of course not.

So these teachers have this completely backwards. It doesn’t say that Christians cannot claim sinlessness. The passage is teaching the exact opposite. All Christians are cleansed from all sin. It is the one who hasn’t been cleansed yet who cannot make such a claim.

And verse 9 gives the solution for the one who hasn’t been cleansed yet: “If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.” Again, this is a complete cleansing. The sin is gone. Verse 9 is a conversion passage, what someone needs to do to be saved and gain the eternal life that John desires for his readers.

Those who teach the false interpretation of verses 8 and 10 have to contradict verses 7 and 9. Does Jesus cleanse from all sin or not? Of course He does. Therefore, a Christian has no sin. Those who have not been cleansed need to confess their sins so that they, too, can be cleansed from all sin and be saved.

This passage is a gospel message, and those who need cleansing are the ones in mind in verse 8 and 10. These teachers twist the passage completely around. The passage teaches complete sinlessness, and these teachers make it their trump card to prove that sinlessness is impossible. This seems quite backwards to me.

And even more amazing is that some use 1 John 1:8 to assert that people who believe they live without sin are not Christians at all! They say, “if you think you’re now sinless as a Christian, then the truth is not in you, so you’re not a real Christian.” This passage teaches that believers are cleansed from all sin, and these teachers use it to say the exact opposite, that only those in sin are believers. Again, this is backwards.

Simple logic also demonstrates that these teachers’ understanding of this verse is off the mark. If verses 8 and 10 mean that it is improper to say you have completely stopped sinning, the “have no sin” and “have not sinned” phrases must have a definite time frame involved. For example, if I say that I have not sinned in the last year, someone may say, “But 1 John 1:10 would call you a liar for saying that you have not sinned.”

If, however, I changed the time frame to claiming that I have not sinned in the last 10 seconds, would 1 John 1:10 apply? I am making the same kind of statement but with a different time claim. Many would say that it is reasonable to claim a sinless ten seconds. If even this is denied, the argument could be divided into microseconds, and the teacher would have to admit that he could not claim a sinless fraction of time of very minute proportions.

Some would believe even this, that they are constantly sinning in every iota of time. This would mean that Christians are always sinning, in direct contradiction to numerous descriptions in Scripture of a Christian's actual behavior:

We know that no one who is born of God sins; but He who was born of God keeps him, and the evil one does not touch him. (1 John 5:18)

By this, love is perfected with us, so that we may have confidence in the day of judgment; because as He is, so also are we in this world. (1 John 4:17)

By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments. The one who says, "I have come to know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him (1 John 2:3-4)

What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase? May it never be! How shall we who died to sin still live in it? (Romans 6:1-2)

And I could list many more.

These teachers would also have to admit that they are never obedient. That’s where the logic of their interpretation must take them.

The only reasonable interpretation is that if a person claims that he has never sinned, and by this thinks that he does not need a savior, he is deceiving himself and makes God a liar, because he directly contradicts Romans 3:23, “for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.”

Next time, I will move to chapter two of 1 John to show that John was consistent in his teaching that complete sinlessness is the standard for every real Christian. Stay tuned.

12 comments:

  1. I plan to memorize the entire context of this verse, and then when someone used the 1:8 verse to argue with me, I'll quote all of the verses around it. That should provoke some...interesting discussions.

    :)Ian(:

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  2. That sounds like a good idea, Ian. Either that, or have a New Testament handy so you can show them.

    I'm in the process of refining a rebuttal to the common incorrect interpretation of 1 John 1:5-2:2. Problem is I don't know where to post it. Probably my blog. (Suggestions? Sorry for derailing the topic so soon.)

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  3. Mr. Davis,
    Wow, this is a lot to take in, and somewhat confusing.
    You said that a Christian has no sin, which of course makes sense because -as you said- Jesus cleanses all sin... so when the Father looks at us, he no longer sees our sin, right? So does that mean that if I am conscious of my falling short (and I know that I do indeed fall short) that I am not a Christian? I know that Jesus has already paid the price for my sin and that I consciously accepted this grace when I felt him calling me, so all of my sin, past, present, and future, has already been wiped away, and is no longer counted against me. But were you implying that true Christians no longer sin...at all, or that their sin is not theirs anymore because Christ took it away, so that they walk freely without sin in the sight of God? Shouldn't we be tender about our falling short and ask for forgiveness even though we, as Christians, know that our sin has already been forgiven? Or were you saying that Christians no longer fall short? I know that Christ has paid for all of my sin, and I strive every day for purity and righteousness...but I still do things -as Paul said- that I don't want to do, and I know that those things have already been 'taken care of.' Which reminds me of a verse in Romans 3.
    "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus." So this leads me to believe that Christians still sin, but their sin is no longer their own. If I'm still confessing my sins to Jesus and asking him every day to make me clean, that doesn't mean that I'm not a Christian, does it?
    Please offer any insight you have about this.

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  4. Anonymous, thank you for your questions.

    First, we are not in a situation in which we continue sinning and the Father merely doesn't see our sin. That would mean that God is blind, and that would be an insult to God.

    Being cleansed from all sin means exactly that; it is washed away. It is gone. If we were merely wearing a mask that hid our sin from God, sin wouldn't be washed away at all. And how could we possibly do anything that God couldn't see? That wouldn't make any sense, and it wouldn't be a better condition than what we were in before. Nothing would be washed. It would just be hidden.

    When you receive the cleansing, all your past sins are forgiven, but the Bible says nothing about future sins being forgiven. That's something Bible teachers add that just isn't there. In fact, the Bible teaches the opposite:

    For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a terrifying expectation of judgment and the fury of a fire which will consume the adversaries. (Hebrews 10:26-27)

    The text is clear both in Hebrews and in 1 John. True Christians no longer sin in reality.

    If you truly strive every day for purity and righteousness, then you won't fail to achieve it. Who can stop you? There is no temptation that is too difficult to withstand (1 Corinthians 10:13). God gives you the power to conquer (Romans 8:37).

    When Paul wrote about doing what he didn't want to do in Romans chapter seven, he was talking about his condition under the law, not as a Christian. I hope to post about that sometime in the near future. It would take too long to explain here.

    Regarding Romans 3, it is true that all have sinned, but "have sinned" is a past condition. It in no way says that we go on sinning. In fact, Paul bristles at the idea:

    What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase? May it never be! How shall we who died to sin still live in it? (Romans 6:1-2)

    And, as I included in the blog, John is even more adamant.

    We know that no one who is born of God sins; but He who was born of God keeps him, and the evil one does not touch him. (1 John 5:18)

    Teaching a doctrine other than complete holiness requires ignoring, twisting, or altering the words in these passages.

    God is powerful enough to keep you from sinning. He loves you enough to want to give you that power. He is holy, so He requires that holiness of all who are in fellowship with him.

    This game people play, saying that sin goes on while God doesn't see it, truly mocks God.

    "Behold, you are trusting in deceptive words to no avail. Will you steal, murder, and commit adultery and swear falsely, and offer sacrifices to Baal and walk after other gods that you have not known, then come and stand before Me in this house, which is called by My name, and say, 'We are delivered!'--that you may do all these abominations? Has this house, which is called by My name, become a den of robbers in your sight? Behold, I, even I, have seen it," declares the LORD. (Jeremiah 7:8-11)

    This certainly sounds like the modern church to me.

    I urge you to consider these simple facts. God has the power to make you holy. There is no temptation from which you cannot escape. Therefore, if you really want to do so, you can live without sin.

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  5. Hi, Bryan, I'm not going to leap in here with a ton to say. We have theological differences to be sure. But perhaps one thing that would help clear some of this up for your readers here--and for me--is could you provide your definition of sin? I mean a very detailed definition. According to your view of the Scriptures, what is sin? I mean, there are obvious things like murder, adultery, lies, etc. But what about attitudes of the heart? Thoughtlife? Motives? Are there just sins of commission or are there also sins of omission? Is it possible to commit a sin that you didn't even know was a sin? Do accidents that do harm still count as sin even if you don't mean for them to go that way? And what of just simply falling short of God's perfect love for people? What if we could have loved more, but didn't?

    So, in essence, could you provide your definition of sin, as far as you understand the Scriptures?

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  6. Wayne, that's a good idea. I will try to do that soon.

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  7. Might as well jump in here... In regards to Paul and sin, sometimes people "read the Bible like a newspaper." What is far better is to read it within the context of the society it was written, which is what helps with the issue of Paul struggling with a "thorn in his flesh."

    Many read in Romans 7:14ff as though Paul were describing his own present experience. What Paul is actually doing here is engaging in a typical Greco-Roman rhetorical practice (also found in Jewish literature, including the Qumran Psalms) in which the personal "I" and the present tense is used as a literary convention.

    Where the personal "I" is combined with the present tense, the author is utilizing a practice called "speech in character" to represent a universal experience. Here, Paul is bringing out the universal experience of those who do not know Christ (and that did include him, at one time) and their struggle with moral law and sin. He is not giving a biographical account of his present experience.

    I'll write a few other comments after lunch.
    Eric

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  8. Your rationale in 1 John 1:9 is somewhat contrived. Expanding John's "we" to all humanity, in essence, is unsupportable. You're reading 1 John's other passages like a KJV Onlyist. The context of John's remarks are didactic:

    1 John 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

    The uninformed skeptic will throw this one against all sorts of verses (including 1 John 1:8-10) that say we are all sinners. But look at 3:5-8:

    But you know that he appeared so that he might take away our sins. And in him is no sin. No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him. Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous. He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work

    Verse 9 thus refers to a time after God takes away our sins. Whether 3:9 means that, in God's eyes, we no longer sin (positionally) because our sins are paid for by Jesus Christ; or, whether it means that someone born of God does not go on habitually sinning; or, whether it is, no more an absolute than the ancient proverb "a wise man cannot fall" is a matter of discussion; but clearly, this single verse can't be used in opposition to any other which calls us all sinners.

    In any event, just because Paul described himself (and others, essentially) pre-conversion in Rom 7 does not thereby show that he never sinned post-conversion.

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  9. Eric, I agree with you about Romans chapter seven, but you're wrong about 1 John. My rationale is not contrived at all. In fact, my conclusion is absolutely essential based on the context of the passage.

    You add words to the sin verbs in chapter 3 that aren't there (e.g. "keeps on", "continues to sin"), and there is no hint of a "positional" sin in mind at all.

    These verbs are gnomic in Greek, and verse nine should be translated exactly as the King James and American Standard have rendered them:

    Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin, for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. (KJV)

    Whosoever is begotten of God doeth no sin, because his seed abideth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is begotten of God. (ASV)

    In modern times, people who cannot stand the thought of the Bible telling people that they don't sin have added words to these texts in order to take away their impact. These two versions get it right.

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  10. I did have a long discussion with someone that I work with tonight on the subject of what is a sin? Bryan, could it be described as a willful disobediance. I do fear providing a loop hole for a person claiming salvation but continuing in a "little" sinful lifestyle...thoughts?

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  11. Bryan,
    I had a long conversation with a person at work tonight on the topic of what is sin. Would it be fair to say (without creating a loophole) to say sin is a willful disobediance.

    William

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  12. Jason, I believe sin is willful disobedience, and I agree that we don't want to allow for loopholes. I think it's also sin to ignore what we ought to know. In other words, we can't choose ignorance and then justify transgressions by claiming we didn't know any better.

    Love for God and our neighbor is to be our guide. Since we love God, we long to know His ways, and we don't look for loopholes. We would rather die than do anything that would displease Him. That's what true holiness is all about.

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