Christians Do Not Sin - 1 John 3:9

Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. (1 John 3:9)

This verse is straightforward, clear, and easy to understand. People who are born of God do not commit sin. And who is born of God? The same epistle answers the question:

Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him. (1 John 5:1)

Therefore, all believers in Christ do not commit sin. That should settle the matter. Christians don’t sin. Yet, the vast majority of the church today flatly rejects this biblical truth. In fact, most say almost exactly the opposite, that all Christians will sin until they die. Some go so far as to say that all Christians will sin every single day in thought, word, and deed.

How did so many come to reject a biblical truth that is so clearly stated by the apostle John? Perhaps some want to hang on to their sins and still feel secure about going to heaven. Others have simply been blinded by the teachings of others, and since they have never been told about this truth and have seen it denied time and again, they just accept the teachings that contradict John’s clear declaration.

Since those who deny holiness in believers still claim to believe what the Bible says, they have to somehow answer what this verse says. The most common method is to alter the text. This altering has become so ingrained in the church culture that modern Bible translations have incorporated the additions, even though the original language cannot support the alterations.

Here is one example from the New American Standard Bible:

No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

The Greek word for “practices” is prasso, but that word in not in this verse. The word here is poieo, which means “do” or “commit.” Therefore, the verse is not saying that believers don’t practice sin. It says that they don’t commit sin.

The New International Version says:

No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in them; they cannot go on sinning, because they have been born of God.

This version adds “will continue to” which is not in the Greek text.

Since John’s intent is to make a statement about the absence of sin in a believer, what good would it do to talk about “practicing” sin or “continuing” to sin? What frequency of sin does it take to “practice” sin? What does it mean to continue to sin? If we try to employ these alterations, what has John said that provides us any useful information? Does he mean that Christians don’t sin more than three times each day? Five times each week? Without a clear definition of what constitutes practice or continuing, he has communicated no information at all. Everyone would draw a different line.

Some people claim that the present tense verb “poieo” indicates ongoing action. It is true that the Greek present indicative can have an ongoing aspect. Some call it “present durative.” The present indicative can have this aspect but certainly not in all cases. There are other possible aspects for this tense: iterative, gnomic, historic, futuristic, among others. In order to determine the proper aspect, we have to examine the context. It is wrong to assign the present durative as a default.

Let's look at the logic to see this. If someone claims that verse nine allows for some sin in a Christian, then we lose the purpose of the passage. In context John uses this statement to give us a way to determine who the children of God are. Here is the verse with it's immediate context:

Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother. (1 John 3:7-10)

If any sin is allowed in a believer, how is it manifest who the children of God and the children of the devil are? If Christians sin until they die, how are we to tell them from the children of the devil? Do children of the devil sin more often? How often is that? Do some children of the devil sin less often than brand new Christians? How many sins are allowed in a child of God and with what frequency? With any sin allowed in a child of God, how can their identity possibly be manifest?

The only way the identification is manifest is when we apply the only clearly defined line. Children of God don't sin at all while children of the devil do sin.

That's why poieo in verse nine must be “gnomic” rather than durative, because it creates a postulate by which we can make judgments. That's what a gnomic present tense does. Therefore, we must translate and understand verse nine as the King James version has rendered it – “Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.”

Some alter the meaning of the verse to say something like, “Christians don’t sin without feeling guilty about it” or some other qualification. Yet, there is nothing in the Greek whatsoever that says anything about "without feeling guilty." Such alterations are pure fabrications that are added to satisfy a preconceived doctrine.

Even if we were to allow such alterations, the passage would make no sense, because many unbelievers feel an immense sense of guilt after committing a sin, so John wouldn’t be saying anything. We could say, “So what if believers don’t sin without feeling guilt? The same is true of many unbelievers.”

And even if one were to deny that unbelievers feel guilty when they sin, such an idea runs again into the same problem with verse ten. If both groups, children of God and children of the devil, commit sin and the only difference is that the children of God feel guilty, then how is it manifest which group is which? How can you tell which group is feeling guilty? The test John provides would be worthless.

John indicates in other parts of his epistle that Christians have no sin at all, thereby proving that verse nine ought to be interpreted as allowing for no sin. Verse seven is an example:

“Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.”

How righteous? As righteous as Jesus is. That would mean no sin at all.

Look at 1 John 4:17:

Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world.

We are as Jesus is in this world. Does that allow for any sin? It cannot.

The righteousness that John teaches for believers is complete. If any sin at all is allowed, then we would not be "as he is righteous." We would not be "as he is."

Summary:

1 John 3:9 sets up a principle: Believers in Christ do not sin. Some claim that since John used the present tense, he had in mind “continuing sin” or some other practice of sin that persists in a durative manner. Actually, the verb “commit” must carry a gnomic aspect and cannot be translated or interpreted with an understanding that any sin is allowed. This principle is used as a test in verse ten to judge who is and who is not a child of God. If any sin is allowed, then the test is worthless. No one would be able to tell who is and who is not a child of God.

John stated that Christians do not sin in a straightforward and clear manner. He used the present tense because that is the only tense he could employ to state the principle as being true in a present sense.

Because of this, and because of the fact that John confirms in other parts of the epistle the idea that Christians don’t sin at all, we must conclude that 1 John 3:9 should be translated and interpreted to mean the same - that Christians don’t sin at all.

(Some claim that this idea contradicts 1 John 1:8 and 10. I have refuted that claim in the following essay - http://oraclesoffire.blogspot.com/2009/02/cleansed-from-all-sin.html)

Misuse of Romans Chapter Three - Part Two

Many people use Romans chapter three to prove that humans are totally depraved and can do nothing good, appealing to verses like "There is none righteous, not even one” (Romans 3:10) and “All have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one." (3:12)

As is always the case, we need to examine the context of verses to determine their meaning. The chapter starts out with a question, "Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision?"

This is Paul's theme question for this section, so he answers the question in the following verses. Yet, to understand the purpose for the question, you have to go a bit further back:

Rom 2:9 There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek,
Rom 2:10 but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.
Rom 2:11 For there is no partiality with God.
Rom 2:12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;
Rom 2:13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
Rom 2:14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves,
Rom 2:15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them,
Rom 2:16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.
Rom 2:17 But if you bear the name "Jew" and rely upon the Law and boast in God,
Rom 2:18 and know His will and approve the things that are essential, being instructed out of the Law,
Rom 2:19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness,
Rom 2:20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of the immature, having in the Law the embodiment of knowledge and of the truth,
Rom 2:21 you, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that one shall not steal, do you steal?
Rom 2:22 You who say that one should not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples?
Rom 2:23 You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God?
Rom 2:24 For "The name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you," just as it is written.
Rom 2:25 For indeed circumcision is of value if you practice the Law; but if you are a transgressor of the Law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision.
Rom 2:26 So if the uncircumcised man keeps the requirements of the Law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?
Rom 2:27 And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law?
Rom 2:28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh.
Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.

This larger section is about following the Law and/or being a transgressor of it, and Paul teaches that it makes no difference whether you are a Jew or a Gentile. Following God in obedience is a matter of the heart.

So, the question arises, if being a Jew or a Gentile makes no difference, what benefit is there of being a Jew? The answer is that they were entrusted with the oracles of God (3:2).

But that immediately raises another question in Paul's mind: "What then? If some did not believe, their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it?" (Romans 3:3)

In other words, although God entrusted the Law to the Jews, if some of the Jews don't believe, does that mean that something is wrong with God's faithfulness? Should He not have entrusted the Law to them?

To which Paul answers, "May it never be! Rather, let God be found true, though every man be found a liar."

So God is right in what He did. The unbelief is man's problem. They choose to disbelieve. It isn't God's fault.

In verse five Paul raises another question, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? The God who inflicts wrath is not unrighteous, is He? (I am speaking in human terms.)"

How does our unrighteousness demonstrate God's righteousness? Because even though people were unfaithful, God remained faithful. Man's sin shows the stark contrast between man and God, between unrighteousness and righteousness. Righteousness is more clearly seen when compared to unrighteousness. So someone might ask, if man's unrighteousness actually demonstrates and clarifies the righteousness of God, then why would He inflict wrath? Is that unrighteous?

Paul's answer:

May it never be! For otherwise, how will God judge the world?

In other words, if we say that God can't judge, because man makes His light look so bright in comparison with man's darkness, then God wouldn't be able to judge the world, which to Paul is an absurdity.

Then he raises a similar question.

But if through my lie the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I also still being judged as a sinner? And why not say (as we are slanderously reported and as some claim that we say), "Let us do evil that good may come"? Their condemnation is just. (Romans 3:7-8)

So, if a liar makes it clear that God is truthful by comparison, why would God judge the liar? Wouldn't it be good to continue sinning so that God would continue to be shown to be better? No. Paul says that condemning such a thought is just.

Then Paul gets back to his original question and into the meat of the matter:

What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; (Romans 3:9)

If the Jews received the oracles of God, then are Jews better than Gentiles? No, as Paul noted in chapter 2, both groups are under sin. Then Paul goes about proving this through Scripture.

Here is where many people stumble in understanding the purpose of this quoted Scripture. Calvinists use the following verses to "prove" that all people for all time are evil and don't seek God. Such an interpretation is so far from the purpose of this text that it is frustrating even to try to untwist the mess.

Here is the text:

Rom 3:10 as it is written, "There is none righteous, not even one;
Rom 3:11 There is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God;
Rom 3:12 All have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one. "
Rom 3:13 "Their throat is an open grave, with their tongues they keep deceiving, the poison of asps is under their lips";
Rom 3:14 "Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness ";
Rom 3:15 "Their feet are swift to shed blood,
Rom 3:16 Destruction and misery are in their paths,
Rom 3:17 And the path of peace they have not known."
Rom 3:18 "There is no fear of God before their eyes."

Why is Paul quoting this? To show that Jews have sinned. He has asked the question, "Are we better than they?" Are Jews better than Gentiles regarding sin? Since the answer is no, Paul sets out to prove it by quoting an example showing where Jews have sinned.

He doesn't need to prove to his readers that Gentiles have sinned. That is well known. So his goal is to prove that Jews, too, have sinned. Note the next verse:

Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin. (Romans 3:19-20)

Paul is saying that this passage he just quoted is from the Law, so it is speaking to people under the Law. Who is that? The Jews. So, by this example, Paul has proven that Jews have sinned.

Paul did not intend to say that all people for all time are like this, as the Calvinists so strangely interpret it. It's just an example of Jews sinning, thereby proving that Jews have sinned, which was Paul's aim in order to prove that both groups are under sin. He wasn't trying to prove that all people everywhere sin. If he were trying to do that, he wouldn't have used this passage from Psalm 14. The passage is describing what fools are like, not all people. But that's fine for Paul's purpose. He merely needed to show that there has been sin among the Jews, and since this Psalm was written to Jews, there are Jews who have been guilty of sin.

And, as verse 20 says, works of the Law aren't going to justify people, for the Law is what exposed them as sinful in the first place.

Moving on to the next part:

But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; (Romans 3:21-22)

As Paul noted earlier, the righteousness of God was manifested by the unrighteousness of man who were exposed by the Law, but now the righteousness of God has been manifested in another way, apart from the Law. What way is that? By the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ. Who demonstrates that righteousness? Those who believe, not those who are under the Law.

At this point, Paul narrows his focus to a specific group, “all who believe” and then talks about their progression, first that they all believers have sinned:

for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23)

The "all have sinned" must be "all who believe have sinned," a fact that I prove in another essay (http://oraclesoffire.blogspot.com/2013/02/misuse-of-romans-chapter-three-part-one.html). He is not saying that every single individual has sinned, but rather that all believers (both Jews and Gentiles) have sinned.

It is also important to note the second portion, "and fall short of the glory of God." This hearkens back to the earlier part of the chapter where he said, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say?" In other words, the sin of mankind demonstrates the righteousness of God. By sinning, mankind has demonstrated the contrast between man's darkness and God's glory. Sinners have fallen short of that glory.

Yet now all who believe have been justified through the second way of manifestation of God's glory, as the passage explains in the next verse:

Rom 3:24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;
Rom 3:25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed;
Rom 3:26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
Rom 3:27 Where then is boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith.
Rom 3:28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law.

Paul's ultimate purpose was to show that righteousness comes through faith, not through works of the law, so it's true for both Jews and Gentiles, as he reiterates:

Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one. (Romans 3:29-30)

In conclusion, this entire section is a treatise on how both Jews and Gentiles must be saved through faith in Christ. Why? Both groups are under sin, and following the Law isn't going to get them saved. This section cannot be used to prove the total depravity of man or that all humans are currently in a sinful state, especially believers who have been delivered from sin and its power.

Misuse of Romans Chapter Three - Part One

For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. (Romans 3:23)

Many have used this verse as proof that everyone who has ever lived has sinned at some time during their lives. Most people assume the meaning of “all” as being “all people without exception,” yet Paul does not provide such clarification in this verse. If we were to examine the context, we could find what he means by “all,” which we will see in a moment.

One glaring problem with the foregoing assumption (“all” means “all people without exception”) is that carrying this meaning through the rest of the thought creates doctrine that violates other Scripture.

Take note of verse 24—“being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus.”

Who is the subject of verse 24? In other words, who is justified as a gift by His grace and who is redeemed? We have to look back in the context to find the subject. It is the very same “all” as in verse 23. Paul does not pause to alter the subject. The “all” in verse 23 is the same group that is considered justified and redeemed in verse 24. If all people without exception have sinned, then all people without exception are justified by His grace.

We know, however, that some people are not justified. "But for the cowardly and unbelieving and abominable and murderers and immoral persons and sorcerers and idolaters and all liars, their part will be in the lake that burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death." (Revelation 21:8) And the Bible includes many other verses that prove the same.

Yet, in reality, there is no contradiction between Paul’s declaration in these two verses and the rest of Scripture. The simple fact is that Paul did not mean “all people without exception” in verse 23. The preceding verses tell us exactly what he meant by “all.”

“But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction.” (Romans 3:21-22)

Paul was talking about “all who believe” throughout this context. He was saying the following: all who believe (verse 22) have sinned (verse 23) and have been justified (verse 24). This meaning of “all” is in mind through all three verses.

To summarize the point, if someone insists that “all” in verse 23 means “all people without exception,” then he must accept this “all” as the subject of verse 24 and accept universalism, that all people without exception are justified in Christ.

Understanding “all” as “all who believe,” removes the problem. Since all who believe are justified, there is no need to believe in universal salvation, as would be the case if “all” really meant “all people without exception.”

Why does this distinction matter?

First, the popular notion that “all” refers to “all people without exception” has led to problems in some theological circles. Some people have used Romans 3:23 to say that since all people sin, and since babies are people, then even babies sin, thereby using the verse as proof of original sin.

Whether or not you believe in original sin, this verse cannot be used in this way. Since “all” actually means “all who believe,” we exclude babies from Paul’s charge, because they are not of age to believe.

In other words, we should conclude from the passage that if someone is of age to believe the gospel, then he is of age to have sinned. Since babies do not yet have the capacity to believe, they are not included in the “all” in verse 23.

Second, Romans 3:23 is used by nearly all evangelical churches and groups as the foundation of the gospel, the famous “Romans Road to Salvation” being a prime example of such use. Evangelicals quote the verse to prove that their target for evangelism has sinned and is in need of salvation.

Yet, Paul is not talking about unbelievers here, so it is inaccurate to use this verse as proof that all unbelievers have sinned. Any sinner could point to verse 24 and claim forgiveness, which would be counterproductive in the evangelistic effort. There are other passages evangelists can use to prove sin in unbelievers, but not this one.

Another common misuse of Romans 3:23 occurs when applying the verse as proof that Christians still sin. Some say that “all have sinned” somehow means “all are still sinning.” This is not the case. The tense of the verb indicates that all believers have sinned sometime in the past, and Paul’s focus on past sins is reiterated in the latter part of verse 25: “because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed.” In no way does verse 23 indicate that sin continues beyond the point of salvation.

Some might claim that “fall short of the glory of God” indicates present sin, but this is also not the case. Past sin is one reason for presently being short of God’s glory, because God never sinned, either in the past or in the present. There is no way to use this verse to prove present sin.

My hope is that this short essay will help people see the following:

(1)  Romans 3:23 is nearly universally misunderstood and misused in the church today.

(2)  This verse cannot be used to prove original sin.

(3)  This verse cannot be used to prove present sin in anyone.

(4)  It is risky to build doctrine on an out-of-context verse. Always be careful to examine the context.

(5)  Some interpretations that are ingrained and nearly universal in the church are not true.

As Christians we are called to believe and communicate truth, even when most people around us disagree. Let us shine the light so that we can be effective for God and His kingdom.