Many
people use Romans chapter three to prove that humans are totally depraved and
can do nothing good, appealing to verses like "There is none righteous,
not even one” (Romans 3:10) and “All have turned aside, together they have
become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one."
(3:12)
As is always the case, we need to examine the context of
verses to determine their meaning. The chapter starts out with a question,
"Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision?"
This is Paul's theme question for this section, so he answers the question in the following verses. Yet, to understand the purpose for the question, you have to go a bit further back:
Rom 2:9 There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek,
Rom 2:10 but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.
Rom 2:11 For there is no partiality with God.
Rom 2:12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;
Rom 2:13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
Rom 2:14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves,
Rom 2:15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them,
Rom 2:16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.
Rom 2:17 But if you bear the name "Jew" and rely upon the Law and boast in God,
Rom 2:18 and know His will and approve the things that are essential, being instructed out of the Law,
Rom 2:19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness,
Rom 2:20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of the immature, having in the Law the embodiment of knowledge and of the truth,
Rom 2:21 you, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that one shall not steal, do you steal?
Rom 2:22 You who say that one should not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples?
Rom 2:23 You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God?
Rom 2:24 For "The name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you," just as it is written.
Rom 2:25 For indeed circumcision is of value if you practice the Law; but if you are a transgressor of the Law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision.
Rom 2:26 So if the uncircumcised man keeps the requirements of the Law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?
Rom 2:27 And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law?
Rom 2:28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh.
Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.
This larger section is about following the Law and/or being a transgressor of it, and Paul teaches that it makes no difference whether you are a Jew or a Gentile. Following God in obedience is a matter of the heart.
So, the question arises, if being a Jew or a Gentile makes no difference, what benefit is there of being a Jew? The answer is that they were entrusted with the oracles of God (3:2).
But that immediately raises another question in Paul's mind: "What then? If some did not believe, their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it?" (Romans 3:3)
In other words, although God entrusted the Law to the Jews, if some of the Jews don't believe, does that mean that something is wrong with God's faithfulness? Should He not have entrusted the Law to them?
To which Paul answers, "May it never be! Rather, let God be found true, though every man be found a liar."
So God is right in what He did. The unbelief is man's problem. They choose to disbelieve. It isn't God's fault.
In verse five Paul raises another question, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? The God who inflicts wrath is not unrighteous, is He? (I am speaking in human terms.)"
How does our unrighteousness demonstrate God's righteousness? Because even though people were unfaithful, God remained faithful. Man's sin shows the stark contrast between man and God, between unrighteousness and righteousness. Righteousness is more clearly seen when compared to unrighteousness. So someone might ask, if man's unrighteousness actually demonstrates and clarifies the righteousness of God, then why would He inflict wrath? Is that unrighteous?
Paul's answer:
May it never be! For otherwise, how will God judge the world?
In other words, if we say that God can't judge, because man makes His light look so bright in comparison with man's darkness, then God wouldn't be able to judge the world, which to Paul is an absurdity.
Then he raises a similar question.
But if through my lie the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I also still being judged as a sinner? And why not say (as we are slanderously reported and as some claim that we say), "Let us do evil that good may come"? Their condemnation is just. (Romans 3:7-8)
So, if a liar makes it clear that God is truthful by comparison, why would God judge the liar? Wouldn't it be good to continue sinning so that God would continue to be shown to be better? No. Paul says that condemning such a thought is just.
Then Paul gets back to his original question and into the meat of the matter:
What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; (Romans 3:9)
If the Jews received the oracles of God, then are Jews better than Gentiles? No, as Paul noted in chapter 2, both groups are under sin. Then Paul goes about proving this through Scripture.
Here is where many people stumble in understanding the purpose of this quoted Scripture. Calvinists use the following verses to "prove" that all people for all time are evil and don't seek God. Such an interpretation is so far from the purpose of this text that it is frustrating even to try to untwist the mess.
Here is the text:
Rom 3:10 as it is written, "There is none righteous, not even one;
Rom 3:11 There is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God;
Rom 3:12 All have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one. "
Rom 3:13 "Their throat is an open grave, with their tongues they keep deceiving, the poison of asps is under their lips";
Rom 3:14 "Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness ";
Rom 3:15 "Their feet are swift to shed blood,
Rom 3:16 Destruction and misery are in their paths,
Rom 3:17 And the path of peace they have not known."
Rom 3:18 "There is no fear of God before their eyes."
Why is Paul quoting this? To show that Jews have sinned. He has asked the question, "Are we better than they?" Are Jews better than Gentiles regarding sin? Since the answer is no, Paul sets out to prove it by quoting an example showing where Jews have sinned.
He doesn't need to prove to his readers that Gentiles have sinned. That is well known. So his goal is to prove that Jews, too, have sinned. Note the next verse:
Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin. (Romans 3:19-20)
Paul is saying that this passage he just quoted is from the Law, so it is speaking to people under the Law. Who is that? The Jews. So, by this example, Paul has proven that Jews have sinned.
This is Paul's theme question for this section, so he answers the question in the following verses. Yet, to understand the purpose for the question, you have to go a bit further back:
Rom 2:9 There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek,
Rom 2:10 but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.
Rom 2:11 For there is no partiality with God.
Rom 2:12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;
Rom 2:13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
Rom 2:14 For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves,
Rom 2:15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them,
Rom 2:16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.
Rom 2:17 But if you bear the name "Jew" and rely upon the Law and boast in God,
Rom 2:18 and know His will and approve the things that are essential, being instructed out of the Law,
Rom 2:19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness,
Rom 2:20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of the immature, having in the Law the embodiment of knowledge and of the truth,
Rom 2:21 you, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that one shall not steal, do you steal?
Rom 2:22 You who say that one should not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples?
Rom 2:23 You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God?
Rom 2:24 For "The name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you," just as it is written.
Rom 2:25 For indeed circumcision is of value if you practice the Law; but if you are a transgressor of the Law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision.
Rom 2:26 So if the uncircumcised man keeps the requirements of the Law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?
Rom 2:27 And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law?
Rom 2:28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh.
Rom 2:29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God.
This larger section is about following the Law and/or being a transgressor of it, and Paul teaches that it makes no difference whether you are a Jew or a Gentile. Following God in obedience is a matter of the heart.
So, the question arises, if being a Jew or a Gentile makes no difference, what benefit is there of being a Jew? The answer is that they were entrusted with the oracles of God (3:2).
But that immediately raises another question in Paul's mind: "What then? If some did not believe, their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it?" (Romans 3:3)
In other words, although God entrusted the Law to the Jews, if some of the Jews don't believe, does that mean that something is wrong with God's faithfulness? Should He not have entrusted the Law to them?
To which Paul answers, "May it never be! Rather, let God be found true, though every man be found a liar."
So God is right in what He did. The unbelief is man's problem. They choose to disbelieve. It isn't God's fault.
In verse five Paul raises another question, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? The God who inflicts wrath is not unrighteous, is He? (I am speaking in human terms.)"
How does our unrighteousness demonstrate God's righteousness? Because even though people were unfaithful, God remained faithful. Man's sin shows the stark contrast between man and God, between unrighteousness and righteousness. Righteousness is more clearly seen when compared to unrighteousness. So someone might ask, if man's unrighteousness actually demonstrates and clarifies the righteousness of God, then why would He inflict wrath? Is that unrighteous?
Paul's answer:
May it never be! For otherwise, how will God judge the world?
In other words, if we say that God can't judge, because man makes His light look so bright in comparison with man's darkness, then God wouldn't be able to judge the world, which to Paul is an absurdity.
Then he raises a similar question.
But if through my lie the truth of God abounded to His glory, why am I also still being judged as a sinner? And why not say (as we are slanderously reported and as some claim that we say), "Let us do evil that good may come"? Their condemnation is just. (Romans 3:7-8)
So, if a liar makes it clear that God is truthful by comparison, why would God judge the liar? Wouldn't it be good to continue sinning so that God would continue to be shown to be better? No. Paul says that condemning such a thought is just.
Then Paul gets back to his original question and into the meat of the matter:
What then? Are we better than they? Not at all; for we have already charged that both Jews and Greeks are all under sin; (Romans 3:9)
If the Jews received the oracles of God, then are Jews better than Gentiles? No, as Paul noted in chapter 2, both groups are under sin. Then Paul goes about proving this through Scripture.
Here is where many people stumble in understanding the purpose of this quoted Scripture. Calvinists use the following verses to "prove" that all people for all time are evil and don't seek God. Such an interpretation is so far from the purpose of this text that it is frustrating even to try to untwist the mess.
Here is the text:
Rom 3:10 as it is written, "There is none righteous, not even one;
Rom 3:11 There is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God;
Rom 3:12 All have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one. "
Rom 3:13 "Their throat is an open grave, with their tongues they keep deceiving, the poison of asps is under their lips";
Rom 3:14 "Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness ";
Rom 3:15 "Their feet are swift to shed blood,
Rom 3:16 Destruction and misery are in their paths,
Rom 3:17 And the path of peace they have not known."
Rom 3:18 "There is no fear of God before their eyes."
Why is Paul quoting this? To show that Jews have sinned. He has asked the question, "Are we better than they?" Are Jews better than Gentiles regarding sin? Since the answer is no, Paul sets out to prove it by quoting an example showing where Jews have sinned.
He doesn't need to prove to his readers that Gentiles have sinned. That is well known. So his goal is to prove that Jews, too, have sinned. Note the next verse:
Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin. (Romans 3:19-20)
Paul is saying that this passage he just quoted is from the Law, so it is speaking to people under the Law. Who is that? The Jews. So, by this example, Paul has proven that Jews have sinned.
Paul did not intend to say that all people for all time are
like this, as the Calvinists so strangely interpret it. It's just an example of
Jews sinning, thereby proving that Jews have sinned, which was Paul's aim in
order to prove that both groups are under sin. He wasn't trying to prove that
all people everywhere sin. If he were trying to do that, he wouldn't have used
this passage from Psalm 14. The passage is describing what fools are like, not
all people. But that's fine for Paul's purpose. He merely needed to show that
there has been sin among the Jews, and since this Psalm was written to Jews,
there are Jews who have been guilty of sin.
And, as verse 20 says, works of the Law aren't going to justify people, for the Law is what exposed them as sinful in the first place.
Moving on to the next part:
But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; (Romans 3:21-22)
As Paul noted earlier, the righteousness of God was manifested by the unrighteousness of man who were exposed by the Law, but now the righteousness of God has been manifested in another way, apart from the Law. What way is that? By the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ. Who demonstrates that righteousness? Those who believe, not those who are under the Law.
At this point, Paul narrows his focus to a specific group, “all who believe” and then talks about their progression, first that they all believers have sinned:
for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23)
The "all have sinned" must be "all who believe have sinned," a fact that I prove in another essay (http://oraclesoffire.blogspot.com/2013/02/misuse-of-romans-chapter-three-part-one.html). He is not saying that every single individual has sinned, but rather that all believers (both Jews and Gentiles) have sinned.
And, as verse 20 says, works of the Law aren't going to justify people, for the Law is what exposed them as sinful in the first place.
Moving on to the next part:
But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; (Romans 3:21-22)
As Paul noted earlier, the righteousness of God was manifested by the unrighteousness of man who were exposed by the Law, but now the righteousness of God has been manifested in another way, apart from the Law. What way is that? By the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ. Who demonstrates that righteousness? Those who believe, not those who are under the Law.
At this point, Paul narrows his focus to a specific group, “all who believe” and then talks about their progression, first that they all believers have sinned:
for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23)
The "all have sinned" must be "all who believe have sinned," a fact that I prove in another essay (http://oraclesoffire.blogspot.com/2013/02/misuse-of-romans-chapter-three-part-one.html). He is not saying that every single individual has sinned, but rather that all believers (both Jews and Gentiles) have sinned.
It is also important to note the second portion, "and
fall short of the glory of God." This hearkens back to the earlier part of
the chapter where he said, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the
righteousness of God, what shall we say?" In other words, the sin of
mankind demonstrates the righteousness of God. By sinning, mankind has
demonstrated the contrast between man's darkness and God's glory. Sinners have
fallen short of that glory.
Rom 3:24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;
Rom 3:25 whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed;
Rom 3:26 for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
Rom 3:27 Where then is boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith.
Rom 3:28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law.
Paul's ultimate purpose was to show that righteousness comes through faith, not through works of the law, so it's true for both Jews and Gentiles, as he reiterates:
Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one. (Romans 3:29-30)
In conclusion, this entire section is a treatise on how both Jews and Gentiles must be saved through faith in Christ. Why? Both groups are under sin, and following the Law isn't going to get them saved. This section cannot be used to prove the total depravity of man or that all humans are currently in a sinful state, especially believers who have been delivered from sin and its power.
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